A Leauki's Writings
Published on May 6, 2009 By Leauki In Religion

Continuation of a discussion at https://forums.joeuser.com/345884/page/13.


Comments (Page 5)
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on May 20, 2009

If it was the prelude then or shadow then he fulfilled it and I am asking how since the requirements are very clear in Lev 4 and Deut 12.

Again, the requirements are that animal sacrifices only be burnt inside the Temple. If Christ had offered Himself exactly that way, He would have been disobeying His Father's command and doing something the Lord God abhorred.

Your focus for the literal fulfillment as per the reqirements of Lev. 4 and Deut 12 is misplaced. Christ's work of redemption accomplished by His Passion, death, Resurrection and Ascension into Heaven is the Paschal mystery/Sacrifice. Christ is the Paschal Lamb of God and His saving death on the Cross commemmorated the deliverance of the Jewish people from death by the blood of the lamb sprinkled on the doorposts in Egypt, which the angel of death saw and "passed over". Christ is the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world, and the Paschal lamb the symbol of Isreal's redemption at the first Passover. The Eucharist celebrates the new  Passover in which Jesus "passes over" to His Father by His death on the Cross which His Father finds most pleasing by His Resurrection. We thus anticipate the final Passover of the Chruch in the glory of the kingdom.

 

on May 20, 2009

The New Covenant is not the same as the covenant of the fathers but one written on hearts, and therefore spiritual ……The Lord Himself had said it through the prophet Jeremias 31:31-40; 32:38-42. “The days are coming …..when I will make a new covenant.” ….Written not on stone tablets but I will place the law within them and write it upon their hearts.

Lula, the word there for 'law' is Torah. So how can the L-rd himself put something on their hearts if he did away/abolish it?

I think the answer lies in reading Jer. 31:31-35 in its proper context. "31 Behold the days shall come, saith the Lord, and I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Juda: 32 Not according to the covenant which I made with their fathers, in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt: the covenant which they made void, and I had dominion over them, saith the Lord. 33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel, after those days, saith the Lord: I will give my law in their bowels, and I will write it in their heart: and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. 34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying: Know the Lord: for all shall know me from the least of them even to the greatest, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. 35 Thus saith the Lord, who giveth the sun for the light of the day, the order of the moon and of the stars, for the light of the night: who stirreth up the sea, and the waves thereof roar, the Lord of hosts is his name.

And just so we are on the same page, "Torah" means only the inspired words of God in the OT.

The first part, V. 31-32 describes the Old Mosaic Covenant broken by the people's sins....and the 2nd part v. 33-35 Jeremias speaks forcefully of the New Covenant which will endure forever...so the new  covenant is not going to be according to the flesh as the old law, but in the Spirit, which will endure forever as God has written it in His Blood calling together a people made up of Jew and Gentile making them one.

V.33 "the House of Isreal after those days" is the Catholic Church. The Chruch is the New Isreal.  

To understand salvation history you should read and study the prophets. In the Old Covenant God revealed His law through Moses and prepared His people for salvation through the prophets.

According to Jeremias, the New Law has 3 features....it's new, something interior, and it's heartfelt. It's new becasue prior to this the Old law with God was never desrcibed this way...it's new not in the terms of the previous covenant which has ceased to exist Heb. 8, but in the sense that it is definitive and will not be superceded. At the Last Supper when Jesus said the words of consecration over the chalice, "This cup is poured out for you is the new covenant" He brings Jeremias' words to fulfillment.

It's interior becasue it's etched in the people's heart. it is the law of God, the content didn't change, but people will know it in a different way..the previous covenant was written on stone tablets but this one will be written on the heart and soul of every man....so, the new law is part of every person's being and it's not just an external obligation; people's well formed conscience tell them what to do and if they fail to live up to the demands of the Covenant, they lose their identity until they are converted and repent from sin. In Heb. 10:18, St.Paul explains this passage that in the New Covenat Christ has obtained forgiveness of sins for us through the Cross and therefore the old sin offerings no longer have any effect. "Where there is forgiveness of sins, there is no longer any offering for sin."

It's heartfelt becasue it's based on a loving relationship between God and His people. Jeremias' v. 33 shows this best. So, moral imperatives should not come by way of legal imposition from outside...they will arise from a person's heart the aim being not so much perfect, guiltless behavior as living in union with God: "All who keep His commandments abide in Him, and He in them."

The New Covenant has given its name to the "New Testament" on which the new people of GOd is founded. The Chruch teaches in Lumen gentium 9 that "At all times and in every race God has given welcome to whosoever fears Him and does what is right. ....God was please to bring men together as one people, a people that acknowledges Him in truth and serves Him in holiness. He therefore chose the race of Isreal as a people unto Himself. With it He set up a covenant. Step by step He taught and prepared this people, making known in its history both Himself and the decree of His will and making it holy unto Himself.

All these things were done by way of preparation and as a figure of that new and perfect covenant which was to be ratified in Christ and that of fuller revelation which was to be given through the Word of God Himself made flesh.

The Christian Chruch is the new and definitive Covenant which will never pass away and no new public revelation is to be expected before the glorious manifestation of our Lord Jesus Christ at His Second Coming at the end of the world in judgment of it.

on May 20, 2009

post #60

There is Lev. 6:18 and Exodus 31:16-18....where it most clearly appears that God Himself is limiting the duration of the covenant. The covenant is perpetual "in their generations".

Lula, pay attention to the pronouns here.

Lev 6:18- "All the males among the children of Aaron shall eat of it. It shall be a statute for ever in your generations concerning the offerings of the LORD made by fire: every one that toucheth them shall be holy. (KJV)"

This isn't a conditional 'as long as your generation exists' but rather that this statute forever will remain in your generations (ie your lineage).

Ex 31:16-18- "16 Wherefore the children of Israel shall keep the sabbath, to observe the sabbath throughout their generations, for a perpetual covenant. 17 It is a sign between me and the children of Israel for ever: for in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested, and was refreshed. 18 And he gave unto Moses, when he had made an end of communing with him upon mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the finger of God. (KJV)"

The Israeli people still exist even today. Even 'if' it was linked to their generations (which the Sabbath is not) they are still alive today therefore this covenant is still in existence.

Lev 6:18- "All the males among the children of Aaron shall eat of it. It shall be a statute for ever in your generations concerning the offerings of the LORD made by fire: every one that toucheth them shall be holy. (KJV)"

The Douay Rheims version has it as:  "The males only of the race of AAron shall eat it. It shall be an ordinance everlasting in your generations concerning the sacrifices of the Lord: Everyone that touches them shall be sanctified."

The point is no matter whether the word is "your" or "theirs", the duration of the Old Mosaic is still limited by God's own words.  

As far as the Old Mosaic Covenant, read Jer. 31:32 again if you think it's still in effect. The idolatrous and unfaithful Isrealites didn't keep their end of the Sinai agreement and thus voided it themselves.    

on May 20, 2009

Again, the requirements are that animal sacrifices only be burnt inside the Temple. If Christ had offered Himself exactly that way, He would have been disobeying His Father's command and doing something the Lord God abhorred.

Your focus for the literal fulfillment as per the reqirements of Lev. 4 and Deut 12 is misplaced. Christ's work of redemption accomplished by His Passion, death, Resurrection and Ascension into Heaven is the Paschal mystery/Sacrifice. Christ is the Paschal Lamb of God and His saving death on the Cross commemmorated the deliverance of the Jewish people from death by the blood of the lamb sprinkled on the doorposts in Egypt, which the angel of death saw and "passed over". Christ is the Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world, and the Paschal lamb the symbol of Isreal's redemption at the first Passover. The Eucharist celebrates the new  Passover in which Jesus "passes over" to His Father by His death on the Cross which His Father finds most pleasing by His Resurrection. We thus anticipate the final Passover of the Chruch in the glory of the kingdom.

Hmm, I sense a misdirection away from the issue here.  Lula, I'm not aruging against the point regarding the Pesachal lamb now am I?  You suggest that the 'Old Law' (ie Torah) is fulfilled and abolished.  I am asking how the sin sacrifices that were offered in the Temple were fulfilled so they could be 'done away' with as you said.  Mainly because this is a part of the Torah you suggest is fulfilled.  So far all you've done is elude to an agreement that it has not.

on May 20, 2009

Lev 6:18- "All the males among the children of Aaron shall eat of it. It shall be a statute for ever in your generations concerning the offerings of the LORD made by fire: every one that toucheth them shall be holy. (KJV)"

The Douay Rheims version has it as:  "The males only of the race of AAron shall eat it. It shall be an ordinance everlasting in your generations concerning the sacrifices of the Lord: Everyone that touches them shall be sanctified."

The point is no matter whether the word is "your" or "theirs", the duration of the Old Mosaic is still limited by God's own words.  

As far as the Old Mosaic Covenant, read Jer. 31:32 again if you think it's still in effect. The idolatrous and unfaithful Isrealites didn't keep their end of the Sinai agreement and thus voided it themselves.   

Lula, do the Israeli people still exist today?

on May 20, 2009

And just so we are on the same page, "Torah" means only the inspired words of God in the OT.

I've not heard this as an accepted definition.  It is most commonly referred to the First 5 books of the Bible (the whole OT is considered the Tanakh, an acronym).  The simplistic definition I've heard is "teaching and instruction" (ie this is how you should live) but still refers to the first 5 books of the Bible.  Although I agree that the Torah are the inspired words of G-D, the prophets are not considered Torah but rather Nevtim.

The first part, V. 31-32 describes the Old Mosaic Covenant broken by the people's sins....and the 2nd part v. 33-35 Jeremias speaks forcefully of the New Covenant which will endure forever...so the new  covenant is not going to be according to the flesh as the old law, but in the Spirit, which will endure forever as God has written it in His Blood calling together a people made up of Jew and Gentile making them one.

but it still says I will write the "Torah" on their hearts (verse 33).  Therefore Torah still exists.

According to Jeremias, the New Law has 3 features....it's new, something interior, and it's heartfelt. It's new becasue prior to this the Old law with God was never desrcibed this way...it's new not in the terms of the previous covenant which has ceased to exist Heb. 8, but in the sense that it is definitive and will not be superceded. At the Last Supper when Jesus said the words of consecration over the chalice, "This cup is poured out for you is the new covenant" He brings Jeremias' words to fulfillment.

Lula, what is the hebrew word used for 'Law' in Jer 31:33?

on May 20, 2009

Adventure-Dude


Lula,
 
We learn from Jesus that “salvation is from the Jews.” How? Through biblical Judaism!
Lula, Salvation was/is/will be through and by faith in G-D.  It has nothing to do with the style of Judaism.  We only see accounts of salvation by faith throughout the Bible.
This most pleasing, holy and perfect Sacrifice is Jesus Christ Himself, who once sacrificed Himself on the Cross in a bloody manner, and who continually offers Himself for us in the Holy Sacrifice of the Mass in an unbloody manner, “a clean oblation”; the Holy Eucharist.
Regarding sacrifices.  Can you show me one sin sacrifice that was not burnt in the Old Testament?
After Torah, weren't ALL sin sacrifices were to be done in the Temple. 
Jesus was neither burnt nor sacrificed in the Temple.
The question is still unanswered how he can be our sin sacrifice when he fails to meet these two requirements.
How then can he be the sin sacrifice?  This is G-D's requirement given to the people and MUST be met in order for Jesus to become our sin sacrifice.

I am not sure if any answered one answered your question.  First, the Red Heifer was the ONLY sacrifice that was to be made outside the walls of Jerusalem.  This is also the sacrifice that makes the Priest doing the sacrifice unclean. (Numbers 19).

Not all offerings had to be burnt.  They are several different offering some of which the Priest were allowed to eat.

on May 21, 2009

One of you is messing up the formatting.

Are you pasting formatted text from Word?

Please use either the Joe-User editor or paste from Notepad (without formatting)!

 

on May 21, 2009

Lula,

Does the The United States Catholic Catechism for Adults published in 2006 state that "The covenant that God made with the Jewish people through Moses remains eternally valid for them" or does it not?

 

on May 21, 2009

Leauki
Lula,

Does the The United States Catholic Catechism for Adults published in 2006 state that "The covenant that God made with the Jewish people through Moses remains eternally valid for them" or does it not?

 

Yes, it did,  but last August, 2008, the conference of bishops recognized it was a mistake to have it there and this heretical sentence is in the process of being removed.

on May 21, 2009

Lula, what is the hebrew word used for 'Law' in Jer 31:33?

I don't know, but will try to find out.....isn't this a question better addressed to Leauki?

 

on May 21, 2009

I thought the Catholic Church believed in SuperSession aka Replacement Theology, so what you're saying is that they no longer do?  Is this cocorrect?

on May 21, 2009

Sorry about the typos.  Its hard to read with the posts being all discombobulated!  Well back to the game.  Leauki, is it possible to fix it?

I want to read all that has been said.  Does this come in book format? :->

on May 21, 2009

"31 Behold the days shall come, saith the Lord, and I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Juda: 32 Not according to the covenant which I made with their fathers, in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt: the covenant which they made void, and I had dominion over them, saith the Lord. 33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel, after those days, saith the Lord: I will give my law in their bowels, and I will write it in their heart: and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. 34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying: Know the Lord: for all shall know me from the least of them even to the greatest, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. 35 Thus saith the Lord, who giveth the sun for the light of the day, the order of the moon and of the stars, for the light of the night: who stirreth up the sea, and the waves thereof roar, the Lord of hosts is his name.

Lula, what is the hebrew word used for 'Law' in Jer 31:33?

 I haven't found the Hebrew word yet, but here is the Latin translation for Jer. 31:33...

33 Sed hoc erit pactum, quod feriam cum domo Israel post dies illos, dicit Dominus: Dabo legem meam in viceribus eorum et in corde eorum scribam eam; et ipsi erunt mihi in populum. 

on May 21, 2009

And just so we are on the same page, "Torah" means only the inspired words of God in the OT.

I've not heard this as an accepted definition. It is most commonly referred to the First 5 books of the Bible (the whole OT is considered the Tanakh, an acronym). The simplistic definition I've heard is "teaching and instruction" (ie this is how you should live) but still refers to the first 5 books of the Bible. Although I agree that the Torah are the inspired words of G-D, the prophets are not considered Torah but rather Nevtim.

Yes, this is my understanding as well. I just wanted to be sure we are in agreement as to what consists of the Torah.

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